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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Original post by LessBread
A tax cut is a tax cut regardless of whether or not government spending is cut. A tax cut increases the disposable income of the tax payer regardless of whether or not government spending is cut. If spending is not cut, the government deficit grows. That increases the long term tax burden that may require future tax increases to make up. At any rate, if you're saying that tax cuts don't provide much stimulus, I would have to agree with you.
A tax cut, that is funded by printing money to cover the shortfall redistribution of income, from top to bottom. So fort he purposes of stimulus it is less effective, being government graft it doesnt necessarily flow to productive venture.
It seems to me that a tax cut isn't funded, rather it's the spending that those taxes would otherwise go to that is funded. It also seems to me that this spending could be funded by borrowing money as well as printing money to cover the shortfall arising from the tax cut. Moreover, it seems to me that by calling government spending graft, you've precluded the possibility that the spending could be productive. In other words, you're operating from assumptions that lead to inevitable conclusions regardless of whether or not the facts support those conclusions.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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As I pointed out earlier, the most stimulating tax cut would be a payroll tax holiday, producing $1.29 in GDP for every $1.00. That is followed by a refundable tax rebate ($1.26), a temporary across the board tax cut ($1.03), a non-refundable tax rebate ($1.02). Other kinds of tax cuts produce no stimulus at all, just the opposite. They retard GDP considerably. Making capital gains tax cuts permanent would result in $0.37 in GDP for every $1.00 cut. That means retarding GDP by $0.63 per $1.00 cut. A corporate tax cut is worse, $0.30 per $1.00 or $0.70 retardation per $1.00 cut. Making the Bush tax cuts permanent is the worst of the lot, $0.29 per $1.00 or $0.71 retardation per $1.00 cut. These figures were crunched by Mark Zandi from Moody’s Economy.com, a middle of the road Republican not some radical left-wing economist. (See A meaningful stimulus for Main Street October 22, 2008).
I know who Zandi is, he's the head dude at Moody's that was recommending a buy on Wachovia bank the day it went under. Stellar source I'm sure, he's obviously right on top of it.
He also supported John McCain for President. If you think the less of him for his other past mistakes that's o.k. too. The point was that he's in the mainstream, not on the fringe, and that his calculations demonstrate quantitatively that tax cuts during a recession retard growth rather than stimulate it.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Since the actual market does not have a price based interest rate, you appear to have been describing an idealized dynamic rather than what actually happens. There is nothing wrong with that, if you acknowledge that you're setting forward an idealized picture to compare with what actually happens, but you didn't do that. It looked as if you were trying to show how tax cuts could lead to jobs in theory, provided a price based interest rate, rather than how they might work that way in actuality, where interest rates are set artificially.
There's a detail involved that I guess I didn't communicate effectively. There IS a market based clearing rate, it just competes with the FED. When the FED undercuts it, it is attempting to "step on the gas" of the economy. The difference between the naturally occuring market rate and the FED rate is the margin of distortion.
Clearing rate? That could mean many different things. What do you mean by it?
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Please show me how that model holds for people at both ends of the disposable income spectrum.
Disposable income is umm, disposable right? Thus an amount above subsistence. For any amount above subsistence you can dispose if it in only two ways. Unless you;re arguing that there is a floor to capitalizing your income, which I don't think is your argument.
If it doesn't hold for people at or below subsistence, then one end of the spectrum is left out of the consideration, which is what I was getting at originally.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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There's a gap in your explanation between the banker sitting on a pile of money and a consumer deciding to purchase now rather than later. What changes for the consumer?
God Lord man, I've spelled it out specifically several times.
Perhaps it's there between the lines, but you haven't spelled it out.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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The benefit of savings is reduced by low returns which means production is fully capitalized
So if I were to offer you 10,000% return on your money daily, might you not put off buying a television today and instead buy 10 tomorrow and have double the money you started with? Of course you would.
If I were then to offer you .00001% return on your money annually, and the television you wanted was reduced in price by 50% might you not then instead purchase the television? Of course you would.
Yes I'm reducing my example to the absurd. The third time explaining what should be obvious requires it.
And if I had no money that wouldn't matter. If you're trying to say that the banker sitting on piles of money with an incentive to spend it now, spends it by loaning it to a business that in turn hires people to make things and so on, then by all means say so rather than turning out stories about consumers buying televisions or what have you.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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What changes for the consumer with no disposable income? It appears that the model assumes that consumers have money to spend.
As I stated in my original explanation, someone at dead break even after bill's that receive a 20% tax cut would have 20% more money. All of which by definition would be disposable.
I think that math is flawed. If a person is paying 30% tax and their rate is cut to 10%, that's not a 20% cut, that's a 66% cut in their tax burden. It also doesn't mean that they would have 20% more money, it means they would have 20/70 or 28.5% more money. If a person paying 30% tax received 20% cut in their tax burden, their new rate would be 24% (30% - 20%*30%). That would mean 6/70 or 8.5% more money. To get 20% more money after taxes, a person paying 30% would have to pay 16%, a 50% cut in their tax burden. 20% of 70 is 14; 30 - 14 = 16; 14/30 ~= 50%. The numbers change depending on the initial tax rate, but it suffices to say that a 20% tax cut does not equal a 20% increase in money after taxes. At any rate, here's what you wrote originally: "Take your existing income,(assuming you weren't using your personal circumstances as an example), and add 20% to it. Assume for a moment that you're breaking dead even after all things considered. Not a dollar to spend after bills, food, etc. After your 20% "raise", you now have 20% of your prior income as disposable income." It appears that what you imagined there was a raise - without quotes - that you applied quotes to in order to refashion it as a tax cut. At any rate, it seems to me that your argument would have been better served by omitting numbers and just pointing out that for a tax payer breaking even, a tax cut means more money in their pocket and, in particular, disposable income where there wasn't any before.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Perhaps that's by definition, a person with no disposable income has no money to spend and therefore isn't a consumer. Granted, reality suggests that everyone is a consumer - everyone has to eat, everyone needs clothes etc. - but maybe the model is built to deal with consumption above and beyond the basic necessities. At any rate, what happens that provides the consumer with money to spend?
You've been very civil man but I can't help but feel you're being intentionally daft. This is basic mathematics. I know you're a smart dude, so I'm kind of struggling with an alternate explanation.
Yes, I've been trying to be civil, not daft. Basic math? I think not.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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You were explaining away rather exhaustively, but it appeared to me at least that you had lost the ball in the rough and were having a difficult time getting back to the fairway let alone making it to the green.
I think it's because I fail to point out the very very basic items. I assume a given level of intelligence and knowledge regarding the issue. This isn't some graduate level discussion of the intermarket dynamics, this is "falling prices stimulate demand". Want to buy a Mercedes for 50,000 dollars? NO? How about 5 dollars? Wow.
I think you got lost on a tangent regarding interest rates and bankers. You're right, it doesn't take a graduate level discussion of intermarket dynamics to explain how tax cuts lead to jobs, at least it shouldn't.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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That was a wise crack, but I doubt I would botch the explanation as badly as you did.
Let's hear it. "Government magics up money from the great ether and builds bridges and aren't those bridge builders the recipient of jobs?" [smile]
There's no magic involved and no great ether full of money, but aside from those two imaginary notions, yes, that's more or less it.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Actually, arguments in the media asserting that tax hikes create jobs are quite rare. These days it's easy to find arguments that spending creates jobs, not so with tax hikes. That notion exceeds the limit of acceptable discourse.
It's a subtle distinction but you're correct. People fail to equate tax hikes and government spending although they are one and the same.
I don't think the distinction is subtle, otherwise, the media wouldn't avoid those arguments. I don't think tax hikes are one and the same as government spending either. A tax hike could be used to pay for new government spending or it could be used to pay for old government spending. There's a temporal factor in the equivalence.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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Why do you call that drivel? Don't you agree with it? And isn't that why you cited it? That is, by citing that passage aren't you trying to make a connection between Keynesian economics and totalitarian states? It appears that your dislike for Keynes prevents you from seeing areas where you agree with him.
It's a road map, one we are appear intent on following. It is drivel BECAUSE it is true.
That doesn't make any sense. If you think it's a road map and you think it's true, then you should be hailing the statement as prescient not denouncing it as drivel. It seems to me that we've been following Keynes for several decades now, from the New Deal to the Cold War, through the Reagan Era and right into the Bush administration. That is, while deficit spending to build infrastructure and improve the lives of ordinary people may have fallen out of favor for the last few decades, deficit spending to build up the military has continued apace.
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Original post by Dreddnafious Maelstrom
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How does that balance the first quote? What happens when the most dangerous man is a cynic, not a romantic? Does the most dangerous cynic try to take advantage of the government? If so, how does he remain most dangerous and not simply another cog in the intolerable system?
I like you man, warts and all [smile]
O.K. [smile]
"I thought what I'd do was, I'd pretend I was one of those deaf-mutes." - the Laughing Man