Hmm, but for the form that was given (euler integral form) it's only defined for x>0.
But, when you add the relation:
gf(x)=gf(x+1)/x
Then it's defined for negative values also (except integer negatives).
Another way to see that 0!=1 is:
(n+k)! / n! = (n+k)(n+k-1)(n+k-2)...(n+2)(n+1)
Set n = 0.
k! / 0! = (k)(k-1)(k-2)...(2)(1) = k!
That is true only when 0! = 1.
/Mankind gave birth to God.
[edited by - silvren on March 23, 2003 7:37:19 AM]
zero factorial
but for the form that was given (euler integral form) it''s only defined for x>0
What makes you say that?
And just to be more pedantic, the gamma function is defined everywhere, however it''s not analytic on the negative integers.
What makes you say that?
And just to be more pedantic, the gamma function is defined everywhere, however it''s not analytic on the negative integers.
quote:
What makes you say that?
I mean for positive x values the gamma is defined like this:
gf(x) = int[0,inf] (t^(x-1)*e^-t dt) , x>0
BUT for negative values it's defined recursively like this:
gf(x)=gf(x+1)/x x<0
And the gammafunction that somebody posted was for positive values not negative.
/Mankind gave birth to God.
[edited by - silvren on March 24, 2003 1:26:05 PM]
/Mankind gave birth to God.
quote:
Original post by silvren
I mean for positive x values the gamma is defined like this:
gf(x) = int[0,inf] (t^(x-1)*e^-t dt) , x>0
BUT for negative values it''s defined recursively like this:
gf(x)=gf(x+1)/x x<0
Sorry, you''re right. I didn''t think about the integral not being defined at t = 0.
In any case, it''s definately defined for 0! = Γ(1) = 1.
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