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Is O(0) equal to O(1) ?

Started by July 10, 2015 08:29 AM
35 comments, last by cowsarenotevil 9 years, 1 month ago

Hey everyone,

I've found the following question while learning for my exam on datastructures:

"Is O(0) equal to O(1)?".

I would say that O(0) is not equal to O(1) but something tells me it might be.

Can someone give me an answer to that question? Maybe an explanation too if it is.

Best Regards

Olaf

Follow my hobby projects:

Ognarion Commander (Java/LIBGDX): https://github.com/OlafVanSchlacht/ognarion-commander

I had a quick look at the definition again over at Wikipedia and from that I would say 'no' because there is no M you can pick to fulfill the inequality. I did however only glance at things because my compile won't take that long.
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Asymptotic notations only look at things from the point of view of a very large data set. And with a sufficiently large data set, every operation that takes a constant n time, where n doesn't even depend on the size of the data set, just on arbitrary implementation details, are equal. That is, O(1) and O(10) are equal. They're both O(1).

That said, I couldn't, for the life of me, think of any kind of algorithm which is O(0). The only way that could be done is if the data set is always in its final state, that is, it is known beforehand that the input is in itself the output, thus requiring no operation whatsoever.

Can anyone else post their thought about this?

Is O(0) even a sensible concept? O(1) means a constant amount of time regardless of the input size... O(0) means, no time in any situation? Does anything take no time?

Is O(0) even a sensible concept? O(1) means a constant amount of time regardless of the input size... O(0) means, no time in any situation? Does anything take no time?

nop

tongue.png

Is O(0) even a sensible concept? O(1) means a constant amount of time regardless of the input size... O(0) means, no time in any situation? Does anything take no time?


nop

tongue.png

nops still take cycles to process, and the time taken scales linearly with the number of nops in the sequence, so they'd be O(N) cool.png

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Would a statement that has no effect (which the compiler optimizes out) count as O(0)?

EDIT:

Without knowing what O(0) is supposed to be, I think the correct answer is "No".

Looking at Properties / Multiplication by a constant on the Wiki page:

a3e016c8c07c503b2a11d42a9f2f6bbb.png if k is nonzero

Assuming g = 1, this would translate to O(k) = O(1). It is explicitly stated that k must be nonzero, but in order for O(0) = O(1) being true, that would have to be the case.

Now don't ask me why k must be nonzero, but presumably it's just for that reason.

Wait... of course k must be non-zero... otherwise you could magically turn any O(nx) algorithm into O(1) and the whole thing wouldn't make sense any more...

...the time taken scales linearly with the number of nops in the sequence, so they'd be O(N)


You're going to confuse him, lol. Any constant time process repeated N times is O(N). nop itself is O(1).

Would a statement that has no effect (which the compiler optimizes out) count as O(0)?

That would be an understandable way of looking at it, but big-O is used to measure algorithmic complexity rather than compiler behavior. Like Hodge said, O(0) means 'this process has zero complexity in all cases'. It's a sort of "What is the sound of one hand clapping?" kind of thing.

EDIT:
Looking at Properties / Multiplication by a constant on the Wiki page:

a3e016c8c07c503b2a11d42a9f2f6bbb.png if k is nonzero

Assuming g = 1, this would translate to O(k) = O(1). It is explicitly stated that k must be nonzero, but in order for O(0) = O(1) being true, that would have to be the case.
Now don't ask me why k must be nonzero, but presumably it's just for that reason.

Wait... of course k must be non-zero... otherwise you could magically turn any O(nx) algorithm into O(1) and the whole thing wouldn't make sense any more...

It would make sense because if k were zero then you'd be doing no work, so you'd have no complexity. It would be O(0). The reason non-zero values simply drop the k is that complexity is concerned with growth rates rather than direct measurements. This is a measure of how the performance will change as the size of the set increases:

k = 1

O(kN)

When N goes from 1 to 10 complexity increases (1 to 10) by a factor of 10. The rate of change is linear.

k = 5

O(kN)

When N goes from 1 to 10 the complexity increases (5 to 50) by a factor of 10. The rate of change is linear.

The constant k is irrelevant to the rate of change as N increases. However, if k is zero then no work is done, regardless of the set size, so we get O(0).

A programming example. Let's say k is the time it takes some process to work on an array of size N:


array someArray[N];

/////////////////////measuring the complexity of this section
for(item in someArray) {
    //do constant 'k' amount of work
}
/////////////////////end section

If k is one second then an array with 60 members takes one minute to process. If we double the array size, the time doubles, etc. This is linear complexity: O(N). The k is irrelevant.

However, what if we remove the loop? Now k is zero, and it turns out our complexity is also zero, because no matter the size of the array we do no work on it. This is O(0).

void hurrrrrrrr() {__asm sub [ebp+4],5;}

There are ten kinds of people in this world: those who understand binary and those who don't.

I've once or twice seen O(0) used a shorthand to describe a function with an empty body, for consistency when you are summing up the asymptotic cost of sub-calls.

In that context, it's explicitly not equal to O(1), since a loop of O(1) function calls becomes O(N), where a loop of O(0) function calls remains O(0) - i.e. samoth's case of compiler eliding expressions entirely.

Tristam MacDonald. Ex-BigTech Software Engineer. Future farmer. [https://trist.am]

Weird, I've certainly never seen that before. I think it's trying to show/say that the fastest code is the one that's never called? In which case O(0) != O(1)

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