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Original post by CrystalParadigm
Mayrel, OMG are you that dense?
Thank you.
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Punishable Under Section 2319 of Title 18
Don't mean to be picky, but that particular second doesn't have anything to do with what rights the copyright holder has. Indeed, it is
usual, when referring to copyright law, to refer to Title 17, the actual title that defines copyright law.
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The copyright holder has the EXCLUSIVE right to reproduce their own work.
No. The copyright holder has the exclusive right to reproduce their own work as limited by the limitations and restrictions upon the exclusive rights as defined in sections 107 to 122.
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Fair use only applies to items that are susceptible to fair use. There is no such thing as fair use for software. You can't copy only a page of a piece of software. You can't copy only 15 lines of code and expect it to work.
Explain yourself. The law concerning
fair use does not place specific limits on the amount or nature of the work used under the justification fair use. Even if it did, you
can copy only a page of a piece of software, and, providing you select the 15 lines of code correctly, you
can copy only 15 lines of code and expect it to work.
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Screenshots are not considered fair use if they contain registrable elements, and copying screenshots is not piracy anyway. The rights to copy a piece of software are owned by the copyright holder. That means, get this, they own those rights. If you copy a piece of copyrighted software, you are stealing the copyright owner's right to exclusively copy their own work, and to benefit from those copies by sale.
Nonsense, on two points.
Firstly, if you claim that copying a piece of software without authorisation is 'stealing the right to copy the software', then it follows that having done so, I have the right to copy the software, and can do so at will without comitting any additional crime. The law, however, makes it clear that
each act of copyright violation is illegal. How can it be illegal for me to copy the software if, as you maintain, I have obtained (although illegally) the right to do so.
Secondly, if you claim that copying a piece of software without authorisation is 'stealing the right to copy the software', then it must follow that the previous copyright holder no longer possesses the right to copy the software since, legally, theft occurs when the thing stolen is no longer available to the party from which it was stolen.
In summary, if your claim is correct, then I can make an unlawful copy of my Windows XP CD. I then have the
right to make as many copies as I want. Further more, I can bring a civil action against any party who makes copies of Windows XP without my consent (such as, for example, Microsoft), since they no longer have the right to do so.
Reductio ad absurdum.Quote:
It's that simple. Yes, it is. I have provided the copyright laws and punishments already in this thread.
And the law directly contradicts your claim.
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If you continue to maintain that copyright infringement is not equivalent to theft, then you do so at your own risk.
I do not maintain that. The
law maintains that. If copyright infringement
was equivalent to theft, there would be no Title 17, because no copyright would be necessary.
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As for the original argument in this thread. If a society has no contingency for Intellectual Property, nobody will want to create works.
Prove this.
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The fact is, people don't make games to make games. People make games to make money.
The fact is you're wrong.
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Dean R. Koontz also said that Writers do not write for the art, they write to make money.
Appeal to authority.Quote:
If everything that is created just goes into public domain with little or no compensation for the creator, there will be no incentive to contribute to that public domain.
Let's examine that argument.
1. There is no copyright.
2. Creators recieve little or no compensation for their work.
3. Therefore, creators will not wish to create.
There are two flaws in this argument.
The first is premise 1. It takes part in a non sequitur, since whether or not there was copyright, if creators did not recieve reasonable compensation for their work, they would not wish to create. Ergo, premise 1 is unrelated to the argument.
The second is premise 2. It does not follow from any stated premise, and is in contradiction of the premise, stated in previous posts, that creators
will recieve reasonable compensation for their work. Therefore, unless you can present additional argument that supports premise 2, it is to be stricken from the record.
Since premise 1 isn't related to the argument, and since premise 2 is false, there is nothing to support the conclusion. Therefore, your argument is flawed.
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There are exceptions to this (kudos to all the freeware makers who are independently wealthy), by my point is that they are the exception, rather than the rule. The entertainment industry would dissolve if theft of Intellectual Property Rights was not recognized.
But since theft of IP rights is a logical impossibility, that isn't a problem.